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I'm going to try and make this my last post on the subject, because we're not communicating here, and the argument is circular.

Still rhetoric and incomplete at that. I nor you need not be told what key it is. The discrepancy and legalese have all been hashed out. So has right and wrong. The bad guys still beg to differ.
Sorry I find all that hard to follow.

FCD is not a secondary function because SHA is in D.

Yes, IF it is in D. No, if it isn't.

Your obtuseness over this is frankly hilarious. I'd be screaming in frustration if it wasn't so ridiculous. (It occurs to me that perhaps this is a really rather fine piece of trolling...)

V IV I in G occurs but G has not been previously established nor does the harmonic scheme provide any linear (voice leading) support.

In your opinion.

For those who hear G clearly as the key, it's established right away in bar 2. There are many pieces of music which don't begin on the tonic. Key doesn't have to be established right on the first beat of the tune.

Voice leading is irrelevant, the chord relationships (and bass line) can be enough.

As presented in SHA DCG is just vernacular with the grammar of the lyric providing the only resolution on the G.

Well, a lot of those who hear D as key cite the vocal as evidence for them - the vocal is mostly focussed around D (its resolutions to G are fleeting and ambiguous). It's those intro chords that make me hear G as the key, before the vocal comes in.

 

But like I say, this is kind of pointless and circular, but you refuse to see that - you keep parrotting this insane "SHA is in D" mantra, for some strange reason. I'm wondering if it's because you're actually unsure of your ground yourself that you have to keep insisting, and refusing to accept that it can heard any other way.

As I've said, I'm not trying to convince you it's in G. That would be as crazy as you trying to convince us it's in D.

 

Anyway, I'm no longer interested. Well done for trolling so expertly for so long. I'm spitting out the bait..

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Ok first, the LYRIC not the vocal. The phrase; is it a sentence (?) ends on the G chord. Therefore any intellectual logic drunk or sober might find repose in the G chord.

 

As to D or G, anyone is allowed their own perception. Harmonically there is structure for D and not for G; just the notion that it's a retrograde fragment to G.

It's in D.

 

The relevance of this argument?

I'm not arguing. Musically it's in D. You can call it anything else and develop it into a wonder of the universe - the key word being DEVELOP. Taken as is, G is just an element in a D progression.

 

 

 

 

 

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So, 11 pages later and my first reply to the topic is still correct. Thanks for the laughs 1001gear. You are a good troll. I almost fell for it. No one can be as stubborn and immature as you are without it being a gag. Calling it D Dorian is what really made me start laughing. Good one. That's what exposed you as a troll out to cause strife, because you can't be serious with that.

 

One measure of D, one measure of C, *two* measures of G, and the song resolves on G. Still no case made for D other than "it sounds like D to me", which is an answer I will accept (as tonal center is subjective), but only without the childish snark shown here.

 

"Tonal center" is a matter of perception, as is "total jackass". Thanks for putting up with him, guys.

 

My advice to anyone interested in a real answer and not a jackass contest: Play a G repetitively over the riff (all three chords), and then do the same with D. Whichever note seems more important and structural is the tonal center to your ears. For me, it is G. This is going purely by sound (the theory that backs it up is just icing on the cake). To others, it is D. There is no single correct answer no matter what some kids want to believe. If you want to put a name on it, G Major or D Mixolydian work great. They communicate what notes are used in the song. A wrong answer like D Dorian does not. That would cause great confusion when trying to jam. The tune doesn't even have a Dorian quality to it.

 

If still in doubt, look at what the guy that wrote the song says: G. Probably a better authority than anyone in this thread, especially the troll, unless "D" stands for "denial".

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So, 11 pages later and my first reply to the topic is still correct. Thanks for the laughs 1001gear. You are a good troll. I almost fell for it. No one can be as stubborn and immature as you are without it being a gag. Calling it D Dorian is what really made me start laughing. Good one. That's what exposed you as a troll out to cause strife, because you can't be serious with that.

 

One measure of D, one measure of C, *two* measures of G, and the song resolves on G. Still no case made for D other than "it sounds like D to me", which is an answer I will accept (as tonal center is subjective), but only without the childish snark shown here.

 

"Tonal center" is a matter of perception, as is "total jackass". Thanks for putting up with him, guys.

 

My advice to anyone interested in a real answer and not a jackass contest: Play a G repetitively over the riff (all three chords), and then do the same with D. Whichever note seems more important and structural is the tonal center to your ears. For me, it is G. This is going purely by sound (the theory that backs it up is just icing on the cake). To others, it is D. There is no single correct answer no matter what some kids want to believe. If you want to put a name on it, G Major or D Mixolydian work great. They communicate what notes are used in the song. A wrong answer like D Dorian does not. That would cause great confusion when trying to jam. The tune doesn't even have a Dorian quality to it.

 

If still in doubt, look at what the guy that wrote the song says: G. Probably a better authority than anyone in this thread, especially the troll, unless "D" stands for "denial".

 

Still insults for musical progress. Here's your original post:

 

Sorry if I come off as combative, or nitpicky. No disrespect is meant.

 

 

Using key signature and mode labels always makes sense. Those labels simply exist to make communication easier. They don't change what you hear. You can call it G Ionian or D Mixolydian, but you cannot call it D Ionian or Major (not saying you did). That would be simply false. If you told someone it was in the key of D, they would assume it has a C# in it instead of a C, so it would not be an effective way to communicate the key of the song. D Mixolydian or G Ionian would be.

 

The song uses C natural, not C#, so it cannot be in the key of D (Ionian). If you hear D as the tonal center, then it is D mixolydian, not D (natural) major.

Perception of the tonal center is subjective. Which notes are in a key signature is not. Key signatures (and which notes they include) are defined and not a matter of opinion or perception.

 

I think V-IV-I in G is a stronger candidate than I-vii-V in D mixolydian because the IV and V are the strongest two chords in a major key (they imply the tonal center more than the vii does) aside from the tonic, which the progression ends on.

 

Determining which mode a song is in can be tricky since relative modes use the same notes. But the order is what gives it away. V-IV-I being one of the options is a dead giveaway.

 

 

 

I hear it clearly resolving to G, but that is subjective. The song cannot be in the key of D because it does not use the notes of the key of D. It could be in the mode of D mixolydian, but that is different than D natural major. The song uses a C natural instead of a C#. It wouldn't make sense to use the key signature of D and put a natural sign next to every C. It makes more sense to use the key signature of G. That doesn't mean the song cannot be in a mode of G, such as D mixolydian.

 

The C is not used as an out note, it is the root of one of the three chords. It is part of the key signature.

 

I totally understand people hearing D as the tonal center, even though I hear it very clearly as G. I agree that it is subjective and a matter of perception. I am just saying to call it what it is. D Mixolydian is not D Ionian and saying the song is in "the key of D" just because the tonal center is D is misleading. Sweet Home Alabama is not in the key of D, but with a C instead of a C# (b7 instead of a major 7). There is already a name for that. Mixolydian. If you want to call D the tonal center then you must say it is in the mode of D mixolydian. In the same way you wouldn't call a song in B Phrygian "in the key of B".

 

 

 

Can't be D Major. D Major does not have a b7 in it. D Mixolydian does. While mixolydian is a major mode, calling it D major is misleading because natural D major has a C#. Like I said above, it is about communication. You can call it whatever you want, but if you say "D major" is the key, you are implying there is a C# in the key when there is not. D mixolydian or even G Ionian would be a better way to communicate the key.

 

Again, sorry to be nitpicky, but calling a song in D mixolydian "in the key of D major" is going to be misunderstood by musicians that have taken theory classes. Saying the song is in the key of D is shorthand for saying "the song uses the notes D E F# G A B C#". Saying the song is in D Mixolydian means it uses D E F# G A B C and is correct in this case (as would be G Ionian depending on perception, but calling it E minor would not be correct even though it uses the same notes). I know that out notes are always an option, believe me, I love using out notes. But Sweet Home only uses 7 tones and no out notes, so it isn't part of this discussion. Also, out notes are used in a different way than the notes in the scale. The C natural used in Sweet Home is not an out note and it is not used like one.

 

Troll? You guys are so vain.

SHA is a chord cycle that centers on D not G. D Major or D Dorian is correct The accidentals belong to substitutions. That part is academic. It's in D. I don't care what the song means to you. I even posted your analysis. You guys keep calling subjective, irrelevant, and troll? (lol) but you need to hold hands to refute my offering? Talk about phony.

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My advice to anyone interested in a real answer and not a jackass contest: Play a G repetitively over the riff (all three chords), and then do the same with D. Whichever note seems more important and structural is the tonal center to your ears.
I hate to return to this "debate", especially as I'm fully in agreement with the rest of your post, but you're on weak ground here - handing a (spurious) advantage to the "D camp" (although 1001gear seems not to have picked it up....).

 

My ears (like yours) tell me the key is G, but that doesn't stop D being the note that works better over all the chords (IMO).

 

That universal applicability of D - its consonance on all the chords - is a common aspect of the dominant note, in any piece of music: it's recognised in this tune in the opening guitar riff, which adds D to the C chord, so as to provide the first instance of that dominant drone which seems to confuse so many others as to the key centre. (The vocal also does this.) IOW, in the upper reaches of the harmony and melody, D is (in both senses) "dominant", while G - for me and you at least ;) - rules in the lower reaches, establishing itself as keynote harmonically.

 

The tonic note, meanwhile, is dissonant against the V chord. (The P4 "avoid note")

 

It's true you can steamroller G-based licks over the D chord (as Ed King does, convincingly IMO), if you feel honestly G is keynote (as he did). Blues-style improvisation often stresses the tonic note throughout a tune. But that's why those who hear the key centre as D think he played "wrong notes" - their ears are much more alert to an added 4th on the tonic chord than we would be to the added tonic on the V chord.

 

IOW, this is all just more fuel for the subjectivity of the tonal centre! We can all draw on various theoretical justifications, but all of them are designed to support our personal prejudices. We all hear the same things, but I hear the prevalence of D (the note, not the chord) as a typical "dominant" effect, while 1001gear hears it as a "tonic" effect.

Meanwhile, I hear the bass descent to G - and the additional bar on G - as providing a strong sense of tonal centre, while 1001gear hears it as an emphasis on IV.

 

As I've said before, if the chord sequence was D-C-G-D, and not D-C-G-G (all other things being equal), I'd have no problem hearing it as D mixolydian.

 

 

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It's in D, obviously. Anyone who doesn't agree is seriously overthinking it.

 

One and only point I'll bother with is the first notes of the solo are a D chord.......Well...OK..one more...If you stop at G it sounds unresolved. But I am sure I will be strung up for that.

 

But, try it yourself. It needs to go to D. Period. Sure, you can stop on G....leave it hanging. But...!!!

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Oh dear, the zombie thread gets up and walks again (or staggers...)

It's in D, obviously. Anyone who doesn't agree is seriously overthinking it.
[sigh]

Would you regard reading the whole thread as "overthinking it"? Have you paid any attention to the argument at all?

One and only point I'll bother with is the first notes of the solo are a D chord.......Well...OK..one more...If you stop at G it sounds unresolved. But I am sure I will be strung up for that.

Not for saying that. Only for not qualifying it with "to me". "If I stop at G it sounds unresolved to me."

That's the only truth. You can't make other people hear it the way you do.

A lot will agree with you, sure. A lot won't. Are they all wrong?

No, everyone is right, from their own perspective.

But, try it yourself. It needs to go to D. Period. Sure, you can stop on G....leave it hanging. But...!!!

I tried it myself lots of time. To my ears it needs to resolve to G.

Doesn't mean I'm right and you're wrong.

Just means that tonal centre is subjective. That's the only thing that is "obvious".

 

PLEASE accept that point. The zombie will not die until you do...:-)

 

 

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It's in D.

 

If you say so.

 

If you actually read the thread, you will find plenty of stuff to support your view, and plenty which ought to make you question it. Not to change your mind - just to think about what your statement really means:

What does it mean to be in a key?

How do we judge?

Can we trust our ears?

What influences our judgement?

Are there any objective facts we can draw on?

Why do people argue about this tune in particular?

Why do people get so heated about disagreements?)

 

These are the INTERESTING questions. "What key is it in?" is just the start (and is not conclusively answerable, except to each of us individually).

 

IMO, 1001gear's beautifully eloquent last post (#160), ought to have killed the thread stone dead. I've not seen any useful or interesting contribution since the first few pages. There's really no point in coming here to say "it's in D", any more than to say "it's in G". Been there, done that, read all the justifications for both.

 

Aaaagh, what I am doing here?!??! :idk:

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It Doesn't resolve to G. Not even in the sense of a song ending on a non tonic chord, for effect. But that's not what most are saying who believe it's in G.

 

That is the way to suss out the key.

 

Sure, the song could be....V,IV,I,I.

 

But the way it's written rhymically,....after 2 bars of G, it wants to GO SOMEWHERE. Where? To the tonic.

 

In this case, that's to D.

 

The key the song is in.

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Write something...... and I'm drawn back in, like a moth to a flame....:(

 

I'm going to try laying out the issue in slightly different form (although no doubt repeating a lot of what's gone before)...

 

The OP's question has two parts: "What key is it in"? and "Why?"

 

Of course, this song is notoriously controversial, hence the (doomed) attempt to settle it.

The problem is, there are TWO correct answers to the first question, and only ONE to the second question.

 

(RGfretter, btw, has answered both correctly...;))

 

The first question is answered by one of two letters: D or G. Neither answer is wrong.

The correct answer to the second question is "Because that's what sounds like the key."

 

So - how can it be in two different keys?

 

Unfortunately, few people (on either side of the first question) add the essential qualification "to me": "That's what sounds to me like the key."

Of course, that's usually unnecessary, because with the vast majority of songs we all agree on what sounds like the key. It seems like an objective observation. We never have to question our own ears.

 

However, this song - as should be blindingly obvious - is ambiguous. Otherwise, why would there be so much disagreement about it? It's not a simple case of right or wrong, because equally experienced musicians, with equally good ears and understanding, can argue for either key. But in doing so, flaws in thinking are often exposed; some people flounder in trying to justify what they're hearing. They don't see how they can possibly be wrong, so the other guy must be. But in fact both views are correct (equally valid).

 

Examples of wrong answers to question 2:

 

"It's in the key of G because the chords are harmonized from the G major scale". Yes they are, but that has nothing to do with the key. The pitch collection normally known as "the G major scale" can be used for two "keys" (G major and E minor), and two common modes: D mixolydian and A dorian. The key of G major is only the most common usage.

 

"It's in the key of D because D is the first chord". Many songs begin with non-tonic chords. Key is established by other means.

 

However, it is true that those two facts (the correct facts behind the wrong answers) do contribute to how we hear the key - how we pre-judge it.

If we're used to hearing music in major or minor keys, in which two chords a whole step apart are normally IV and V of a major key, then we will naturally hear D followed by C as V-IV in G major; a prejudice which is confirmed for us when G follows.

If - OTOH - we're using to hearing music in which the first chord is always the key chord, and in which modes such as mixolydian or dorian are at least as common as tradtional keys, then D-C is going to sound like I-bVII. The following G will then sound like IV; it won't disturb the initial assumption.

 

(I'm still just talking about the chords, here, btw, not considering the melody, which is an additional crucial factor.)

 

So, someone more used to listening to classical, jazz or mainstream pop - and/or with a theory education background - will likely hear SHA in G major. (I.e. they don't have to judge theoretically, the theory will bias their ears without them realising.) In jazz standards in particular, tunes often start with chords that are not the key chord, so that's a scenario they'll be used to; while tunes in traditional major and minor keys are more common than modal tunes.

Someone more used to listening to rock and blues will likely hear it in D (mixolydian). Extremely few rock songs begin with anything but the key chord. Also "key" itself is a flexible concept in rock; parallel major and minor are mixed more often than not, and a bVII chord is highly likely to occur in any song.

And of course, SHA is a rock song - not a classical or jazz tune!

 

This doesn't mean that the "G folk" will never hear a D-C-G sequence with D as keynote. When a sequence runs D-C-G-D - equally spaced (ie twice as long spent on D), that will likely tip the aural balance to D for them too. But they are persuaded by the double-length G in this case; for their ears, that's enough to make it V-IV-I-I.

 

On the melody, that comes in after the chord cycle (and riff) has probably already determined the key for most listeners - one way or the other. So the fact that the melody mostly focusses around D will simply confirm that as the keynote for those who already hear the chords working that way. For those who have decided the key is G, OTOH, the D-based melody just sounds like a dominant stress, nothing too unusual. (There is, of course, a D on the C chord too, as an add-9.) And occasionally one can hear the vocal resolving down to the root of the G chord.

 

The issue here - and what keeps drawing me back to this debate - is the passion with which people defend their viewpoint. The fact that the opposite viewpoint simply doesn't compute. No one seems willing to see the bigger picture.

For those who say it's in D, those who say it's in G are simply wrong; they must be either deaf, dumb, or misguided (regardless of how musically skilled and experienced they might happen to be otherwise).

And vice versa.

No serious insults have been thrown around here, but the much longer original debate on thegearpage got very heated at times. Each side tended to patronise the other - "if you really think it's in that key, you're applying theory wrongly, or just not listening properly." IOW, "my ears are infallible, yours are faulty,"

 

No one's ears are faulty. But all of us have listening prejudices, of which we are mostly unaware. The way we hear music depends on the music we are used to hearing, that we have grown up with and spent most time paying attention to and enjoying. We all hear the same stuff, but we hear it in different ways.

 

The key of a song (any song) is what sounds to you like the key of the song. But don't dismiss someone who genuinely thinks it sounds different. Neither of you are wrong, although it's a good idea to try to open your ears to the other possibility. It's always good to be made aware of one's own prejudices.

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Lynyrd Skynyrd has always ended the song live by vamping on the G chord then stinging a G. This would seem to indicate that at least for them, G is the tonic. I don't suspect that King or Rossington had enough music theory training to to be familiar with mixolydian or any other mode. Their mode of choice would more likely involve whiskey or cocaine in those days. The story goes that King liked a riff that Gary was playing and it inspired a dream wherein all of the chord progressions came to him as well as the solos. any simple question that can generate 174 comments is still worthy...

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Lynyrd Skynyrd has always ended the song live by vamping on the G chord then stinging a G. This would seem to indicate that at least for them, G is the tonic. I don't suspect that King or Rossington had enough music theory training to to be familiar with mixolydian or any other mode. Their mode of choice would more likely involve whiskey or cocaine in those days. The story goes that King liked a riff that Gary was playing and it inspired a dream wherein all of the chord progressions came to him as well as the solos. any simple question that can generate 174 comments is still worthy...

 

Is it possible I am wrong!?

 

Hmm. Possible.

 

But even with that info,...I would argue that ending on the 4 chord is not that unusual, ....and says NOTHING about the KEY of the song!

 

It's in D, as they know.

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Is it possible I am wrong!?

 

Hmm. Possible.

To err is human... ;)

 

However - as I said before - this is not a case of "wrong" or "right". How you hear it is what's right for you.

For you that's D. Good.

 

For Lynyrd Skynyrd - at least for Ed King - it was G. Not just the chord they chose to end it on, but the way King plays his solo: using G-based phrases, even on the D chord.

(But the band themselves did disagree in the studio over what key it was. :D)

But even with that info,...I would argue that ending on the 4 chord is not that unusual,

Well, it is pretty unusual. What other songs do you know that do that? I'm sure there are some, I just can't think of any.

....and says NOTHING about the KEY of the song!

Absolutely! It suggests they thought it was in G that's all. Only a suggestion, and only their opinion anyway.

It's in D, as they know.

Now you're reverting... They "knew" no such thing. One or two of the band did think it was in D; at least one or two thought G.

It really doesn't matter. However, if you regard the key centre as D, you'll probably regard Ed King's solo as sounding a little odd.

 

But as I say, it doesn't matter. We all agree on the notes and chords, which is what does matter. Which note/chord we feel is key centre is neither here nor there. Unless maybe we get to the end of the song, and argue about how it ought to end.... ;)

 

 

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