Members jdwhitak Posted September 5, 2012 Members Share Posted September 5, 2012 Hello, I picked up the Apogee One and Duet 2 this past weekend. When listening to each of them with headphones I noticed something odd. On the One I had to turn the volume almost half up to get decent volume. On the Duet 2 I just had to turn it up about a quarter of the way and it was pretty loud for me. I wouldn't listen to it at that level for long! Anyways, according to Apogee the output impedance of the headphone jack is the same on both units (30 ohms) and I was using the same headphones (Audio Technica ATH M-50s 38 ohms). I also listened to the same songs. Why the difference in volume? I've read elesewhere the load impedance (headphones) should roughly be eight times the source impedance (One/Duet 2) for optimum performance. This seems to be in line with my personal experience on this stuff, but can anyone really confirm or deny this? Also, the One sounded fairly balanced on the material I listend to while the Duet 2 sound fairly bright. The treble, escpecially on cymbals just over powered everything on most of the songs I listened to. Is the Duet 2 just revealing things the One didn't? The Duet 2 is supposed to be a lot better than the One, but I'm thinking I'm digging the One more. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members WRGKMC Posted September 5, 2012 Members Share Posted September 5, 2012 How about the driver settings? Most interfaces install drivers that have level adjustments. Have you confirmed they match? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members jdwhitak Posted September 5, 2012 Author Members Share Posted September 5, 2012 Yes, the software mixers are both set to unity gain. I'm thinking I may need to swith to a higher impedance headphone for use with the Duet 2. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Phil O'Keefe Posted September 5, 2012 Share Posted September 5, 2012 It could be something as simple as a different headphone amp on the Duet vs the One. I don't know that to be the case, but obviously something is causing the headphone output of one to be louder and brighter than the other, and since you've ruled out impedance and a potential variable by using the same set of headphones for the testing of both, it would have to be some sort of difference in the amps - either intentional (different design) or unintended (parts value variance); although from what you're describing, it sounds more like the former to me than the later. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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