Members alez Posted November 2, 2006 Members Share Posted November 2, 2006 Why is this chord used so much more than bVIIMaj6? I find it strange from a theory point of view that we don't hear bVII7 as V7/III, fooling our perception of tonalty. Wouldn't it more logical to stay away from the dominant sound for a subdominant chord? What do you think? Cheers, Alex Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members alez Posted November 2, 2006 Author Members Share Posted November 2, 2006 Both chords are diatonic to the natural minor scale btw, hence why I'm wondering.. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members 1001gear Posted November 3, 2006 Members Share Posted November 3, 2006 I lack the skills to set up a bVII7 but I'm thinking it's probably a voice leading thing, parallel 7ths for instance. Got a specific progression? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members alez Posted November 3, 2006 Author Members Share Posted November 3, 2006 Cheers, 1001. A popular one comes to mind:Im7-bVII7-bVIMaj7-V7 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members 1001gear Posted November 3, 2006 Members Share Posted November 3, 2006 Okay I toyed with that a little bit on my piano and by my oversimplified reasoning,[i bVII III] is a retrograde [VI V I ] relation and as such a bVII would tend to point away from the III. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Poparad Posted November 3, 2006 Share Posted November 3, 2006 Originally posted by alez Cheers, 1001.A popular one comes to mind:Im7-bVII7-bVIMaj7-V7 That's just simply taking a common pop progression and extending the chords from triads to 7ths. Just because you have a dominant 7th chord doesn't mean that it has to be acting as a V and resolved in a V-I. Just look at the blues; two of the dominant chords in it aren't acting as V chords, including the V chord (it goes down to a IV7 chord in the 10th bar). Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members Dubb Posted November 3, 2006 Members Share Posted November 3, 2006 Why would bVIIMaj6 be a more common chord? Wouldn't we hear that as Vm7? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members chriskhs Posted November 3, 2006 Members Share Posted November 3, 2006 For one, I look at bVII7 chord as deceptive resolution thing. Consider this progression (there is something like this in Stella by Starlight and also cherokee)... Dm7 - G7 - Am7 Common right? then how about... Dm7 - G7- Amaj7 This might seem weird but it used in so many songs. Theoretically you are going to the IVm7 to a bVII7 chord, but the I usually think of it as a ii-V going to a VI major. In the diatonic sense, there really is no reason why bVII is used so much... I mean bVI Major is used all the time (thrill is gone for one...) so it is hard to say why bVII is used more than any other chord. If you can give me a chord progression other than California Dreamin' (which is the Im7-bVII7-bVIMaj7-V7 progression) I might be more of a help. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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