Members DeepEnd Posted November 8, 2012 Members Share Posted November 8, 2012 I ran across Fsus2no3 in a piece of music recently. I looked up the chord on chorderator.com but afterward I thought about it and realized a sus2 wouldn't have a 3rd anyway because the 2nd takes the palce of the 3rd. Am I missing something or is it just a screwy way of naming the chord? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members benzem Posted November 8, 2012 Members Share Posted November 8, 2012 Ya that's screwy. No 3rd is implied. I have noticed often, that mistake and believe they are thinking of an add9 chord, which would normally have the 3rd of course so their (no third) would make sense. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members jamesp Posted November 8, 2012 Members Share Posted November 8, 2012 When you think about it, chord naming conventions are screwy in general. In the absense of notation, knowing the name says nothing about the inversion, does it? Space those three notes differently, over a couple of differnt octaves and they could sound like any number of chords. The map isn't the terrain. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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