Members BIGD Posted June 4, 2002 Members Share Posted June 4, 2002 How is your reimbursement handled differently than if it were on your own album? Does all of the money come from publishing, and thus go to the people designated as songwriters, or is it distributed to the band as if that song were on the bands own album? Thanks!! A very important question for me right now. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members BlueStrat Posted June 4, 2002 Members Share Posted June 4, 2002 It would depend on the agreement made. If the song is on a record put out by a record label, and they own the publishing, then they would get the money and distribute the royalty payments to the writers out of ther proceeds. If you are the writer as well as the performer, then any agreement you make with your band about splitting the income is up to you. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members BIGD Posted June 4, 2002 Author Members Share Posted June 4, 2002 Originally posted by BlueStrat It would depend on the agreement made. If the song is on a record put out by a record label, and they own the publishing, then they would get the money and distribute the royalty payments to the writers out of ther proceeds. If you are the writer as well as the performer, then any agreement you make with your band about splitting the income is up to you. Okay, I'll give you a hypothetical specific. A band has a deal with an independant label where all parties are compensated equally as peformers via royalties. However, the publishing is only going to 2 members. The label shops the song (which is on an album already) to a movie maker, and he decides to use the song in a movie. Is that deal with the movie maker a specific deal that has to be made that can have its own terms within the band, or do the percentages that the band gets paid correspond with the publishing rights, or do they the performance royalties? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members BlueStrat Posted June 4, 2002 Members Share Posted June 4, 2002 Originally posted by BIGD Okay, I'll give you a hypothetical specific. A band has a deal with an independant label where all parties are compensated equally as peformers via royalties. However, the publishing is only going to 2 members. The label shops the song (which is on an album already) to a movie maker, and he decides to use the song in a movie. Is that deal with the movie maker a specific deal that has to be made that can have its own terms within the band, or do the percentages that the band gets paid correspond with the publishing rights, or do they the performance royalties? If I'm not mistaken, I think the movie guy pays the record company for using their property (the actual recording). They also pay the royalty rate to the publishing company for using the song. A disbursement arrangement would be up to you. But in this case, I'd contact an entertainment lawyer to make sure, because it's so easy to get hosed by the turn of one little phrase in a contract. Good luck. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members BIGD Posted June 4, 2002 Author Members Share Posted June 4, 2002 Originally posted by BlueStrat If I'm not mistaken, I think the movie guy pays the record company for using their property (the actual recording). They also pay the royalty rate to the publishing company for using the song. A disbursement arrangement would be up to you. But in this case, I'd contact an entertainment lawyer to make sure, because it's so easy to get hosed by the turn of one little phrase in a contract. Good luck. Thanks. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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