Members mlwarriner Posted March 7, 2010 Members Share Posted March 7, 2010 that if a given amp puts out 750 watts at 4 ohms, and 375 at 8 ohms, that it should be putting out somewhere in the neighborhood of 562.5 at 5.33333 ohms? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members jonathan_matos5 Posted March 7, 2010 Members Share Posted March 7, 2010 it is never safe to assume. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Moderators Kindness Posted March 7, 2010 Moderators Share Posted March 7, 2010 Somewhere in that neighborhood. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members mlwarriner Posted March 7, 2010 Author Members Share Posted March 7, 2010 Somewhere in that neighborhood. and surely, an amplifier putting out somewhere in that neighborhood of wattages should certainly be generally considered "loud enough" when putting all of those wattages into a reasonably well designed, and extremely well constructed 6x10 cabinet when coupled with some reasonably judicious equalizerationing? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members mlwarriner Posted March 7, 2010 Author Members Share Posted March 7, 2010 PS - my Line6 HD750 shipped today Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Moderators Kindness Posted March 7, 2010 Moderators Share Posted March 7, 2010 Definitely. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members mlwarriner Posted March 7, 2010 Author Members Share Posted March 7, 2010 Definitely. fantasmagorical! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members kpax Posted March 7, 2010 Members Share Posted March 7, 2010 It's safe to assume an amp that delivers those power levels at those impedences will be LOUD at any in-between impedence. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members mlwarriner Posted March 7, 2010 Author Members Share Posted March 7, 2010 when putting all of those wattages into a reasonably well designed, and extremely well constructed 6x10 cabinet when coupled with some reasonably judicious equalizerationing? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members Kaesh Posted March 7, 2010 Members Share Posted March 7, 2010 Hijack: this follows P=U^2/R, but most amp ratings I've seen don't. Why is that? I assumed loss due to heat, but shouldn't that be proportional to power? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members rpsands Posted March 7, 2010 Members Share Posted March 7, 2010 I always just assumed it was THD increasing but I have no idea and don't really care. I only use wattages as a ballpark at the very most these days. (e.g. you get 300w @ 8 ohms @ 1% thd and 500w @ 4 ohms @ 1% thd). Something like that. Again that's really just a guess. Probably inaccurate. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members kpax Posted March 7, 2010 Members Share Posted March 7, 2010 I think it's because in most solid state amps the Voltage delivered to the cab isn't necessarily the same for different cab impedences. Hijack: this follows P=U^2/R, but most amp ratings I've seen don't. Why is that? I assumed loss due to heat, but shouldn't that be proportional to power? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members BottomHeavyKate Posted March 8, 2010 Members Share Posted March 8, 2010 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members J the D Posted March 8, 2010 Members Share Posted March 8, 2010 The interpolation of projected wattage at a specific ohm rating without further exoansion of the parameters involved is likely to be somewhat applicatble to a solid state amp. The answer to your question is a much more difficult determination if you are referring to a tube amp. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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