Members TheGareth Posted April 10, 2008 Members Share Posted April 10, 2008 Hopefully someone can help me here. I've been tabbing out a Shakti tune from the standard notation and I've come across something - If you look at the picture you will see that I've circled a note in red. Now the symbol beside the note means double sharp so do I play this as A flat or G? I say A flat because all the F's are sharp so two chromatic semitones would be A flat. Or is it G, assuming that the note circled stands for a normal F note? I aint formallly trained in these things so I just aint sure.... Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members voodoochild89 Posted April 10, 2008 Members Share Posted April 10, 2008 F## would be G. Up two half steps, same as going up two frets on your guitar. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members TomCTC Posted April 10, 2008 Members Share Posted April 10, 2008 Keeping the key sig in mind, it is a G, yes. It reverts back to F# thereafter too, so essentially its like a natural in the other direction. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members TheGareth Posted April 10, 2008 Author Members Share Posted April 10, 2008 OK thanks guys! So it's just treated as a normal F note then. Why isn't it just transcribed as a G natural? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members bowlingshirt Posted April 10, 2008 Members Share Posted April 10, 2008 So it's just treated as a normal F note then. Why isn't it just transcribed as a G natural?This is why God created tabs Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members Clorox Posted April 10, 2008 Members Share Posted April 10, 2008 This is why God created tabs +1 yay tabs Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members TheGareth Posted April 10, 2008 Author Members Share Posted April 10, 2008 Thank God for tabs! Although this isn't in tab format so I have to do all the work myself Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members EvilSoup Posted April 10, 2008 Members Share Posted April 10, 2008 OK thanks guys! So it's just treated as a normal F note then. Why isn't it just transcribed as a G natural? Something to do with keeping the scale diatonic. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members monkeyland Posted April 10, 2008 Members Share Posted April 10, 2008 OK thanks guys! So it's just treated as a normal F note then. Why isn't it just transcribed as a G natural? because a g natural is technically not allowed to exist in that key signature. more modern minded composers would use the g natural anyway but there are still those today that would not depending on how much care about tradition and possibly what style the piece is written for. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members TheGareth Posted April 10, 2008 Author Members Share Posted April 10, 2008 because a g natural is technically not allowed to exist in that key signature. more modern minded composers would use the g natural anyway but there are still those today that would not depending on how much care about tradition and possibly what style the piece is written for. Ah right, I see. Well the piece could be described as an Indian folk fusion thing. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members monkeyland Posted April 10, 2008 Members Share Posted April 10, 2008 Ah right, I see. Well the piece could be described as an Indian folk fusion thing. still it depends on who transcibed it. it also can depend on what the chord progression is doing at the time and whether or not a g or f would make more sense to the harmony. that note as an F double sharp is a raised 9th over an E bass which would fit into a traditional stack of thirds. a g natural over an E bass(considering that the G# is already taken in the original triad of the chord) would make no sense, even if it does sound perfectly fine harmonically. also the only way a traditionalist is typically going to write a G natural in the key of Emajor is if there is other evidence around it suggesting a key change to Eminor. and then there are the modern composers that don't bother with key signatures at all and write all of the flats and sharps right into the music because it would be too hard to keep track otherwise. but thats another thread Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Members monkeyland Posted April 10, 2008 Members Share Posted April 10, 2008 and excuse me for any mistakes i may have made in my analysis. it's been a few years since i've even thought about music theory. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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