I ran across Fsus2no3 in a piece of music recently. I looked up the chord on chorderator.com but afterward I thought about it and realized a sus2 wouldn't have a 3rd anyway because the 2nd takes the palce of the 3rd. Am I missing something or is it just a screwy way of naming the chord?
When you think about it, chord naming conventions are screwy in general. In the absense of notation, knowing the name says nothing about the inversion, does it? Space those three notes differently, over a couple of differnt octaves and they could sound like any number of chords. The map isn't the terrain.